http://www.texemarrs.com/022006/george_w_bush_zionist_double_agent.htm
The Bush family is one of the oldest and most influential families in America
Who is the whore?
http://www.texemarrs.com/032011/solving_mystery_babylon.htm
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That’s another lie.
At their peak ■■■■ never even made up 20% of the party.
http://www.orthodoxchristianbooks.com/articles/371/bolshevism-■■■■■
Stalin supported zionism to buy their support and their votes.
Quit making shit up.
Marrs is an insane lunatic with zero sources to back up his insane assertions.
There is an old canard to the effect that Bolshevism was a ■■■■■■ phenomenon (the Nazis, for example, referred to it as Judeo-Bolshevism), and there are still many people today who stress the apparently disproportionate number of ■■■■ who could be found within the Bolshevik movement - especially amongst those who held positions of power. Anecdotally, it has been my experience that Google searches lead either to material of an offensively antisemitic character (“white nationalist”, and sometimes explicitly neo-Nazi websites), or to sites that refute this allegation without providing numbers or sources.
This is frustrating, since the claim gets repeated so often that I would like it verified and don’t have the resources to do so reliably. I understand that by “bolshevik” we’re really just referring to the majority party within the USSR (if that is correct?), and that ■■■■■■ communists didn’t, by virtue of their communism, have much of a ■■■■■■ identity. I also understand that the statistics will be different if we are limiting ourselves to people who were raised as ■■■■■ or if we broaden our scope to include people who, as per the Nazi definition, even had a single ■■■■■■ grandparent.
As such, I understand if this question might be a little too broad, and in lieu of a comprehensive answer would also appreciate references to any articles or books that address this issue in more depth. Effectively, what truth is there behind the claim that the Bolshevik movement was “disproportionately” made up of ■■■■■ and how disproportionate was it? If ■■■■ made up less than 1% of the population but 1.5% of the party, that would be disproportionate but hardly news-worthy
Easy to say for someone who never read Marrs’ works
“the prominent role played by ■■■■ (in the Russian revolution”
The Jerusalem Post
(English paper in Israel)
It must be antisemitic
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Marr is a Moonbat and has been for decades. A sane person would be pushed to the brink trying to get through 3 pages of is idiotic drivel.
I think it is your knowledge of history that needs some attention, along with all your Hasbara mates.
The revolution began with the Kiel mutiny of late October, which within a week had spread to numerous towns and military bases across Germany. Revolutionary councils, in a similar mould to Russian soviets, formed across the nation and began demanding political reform.
Did you even know that there was a German revolution - This is what Hitler was fighting - not the British.
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Wars are not started with guns - they start with sanctions and boycotts.
What does that even have to do with the subject at hand? The German Revolution didn’t even occur until 1918, after the Kaiser had sued for peace.
WWI lasted from 1914-1918, The Armistice was signed on 11-11-18
There was no UN or even League of Nations until 1920. It was formed to prevent another World War.
There were no sanctions or boycotts against the Austro-Hungarian Empire leading up to the declaration of war against Serbia.
Congrats, you haven’t gotten a single fact right yet.
It was actually 5% but thats a minor detail - this is far more important.
With the notable exception of Lenin (Vladimir Ulyanov), most of the leading Communists who took control of Russia in 1917-20 were ■■■■■ Leon Trotsky (Lev Bronstein) headed the Red Army and, for a time, was chief of Soviet foreign affairs.
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His idiotic claim was that ■■■■ made up 80% of the Bolsheviks.
Yes they were ■■■■■■ by heritage and one little detail, they were all atheists.
The German revolution was borne out of the Russian revolution and the same actors were responsible for both.
Tha is what Hitler was fighting.
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You two get further out in LaLa Land with every post.
Germany started the war in 1914 four years before either revolution even began.
The German Revolution was over before Hitler even entered politics.
Yes but don’t you think it might have influenced his thinking when he found out that the ■■■■ were still trying to do the same to Germany that they did to Russia?
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Germans noticed that the next target for a Bolshevik revolution was Germany
In 1933 the ■■■■■■ council implemented a worldwide boycott of German goods and produce - as a result, a lot of germans died of hunger and the economy suffered a huge contraction - that was the single most important reason WWII started. And the boycott against Japan, denying them oil, was the major cause of Pearl Harbour.
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Hilarious, no matter how many times you two are shown to be wrong on everything you post you just pretend nothing happened and continue on or move the bar to deflect from the last steaming pile you dropped that went up in flames.
Oh horse shit. The German economy cratered due to the war debt laid on Germany at the Paris reparations conference.
The ■■■■ in Germany were suffering right along with the the rest of Germany, even worse because of how they were slowly being excluded from German Society and the German economy.
Quit making shit up.
Just a pile of empty words.
Read something with substance
https://www.amazon.com/Ruling-Elite-Death-Destruction-Domination-ebook/dp/B0795773HT
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